Mock Test 7 by CLATalogue and CLATapult for CLAT 2020

Mock Test 7​​ by CLATalogue and CLATapult for CLAT 2020

 

ENGLISH

Last Sunday, sitting at my desk, I wept tears of joy and self-improvement. For the first time in months, I had managed to read seven entire pages of a book. By book, I don’t mean a text mounted on a screen — no Kindle-swindle. I mean a physical book, with pages that can’t be scrolled, provision to insert a hand-made bookmark, and infinite battery life.

Believe it or not, I didn’t break off even once — not to check my phone, not to Google a reference, not even to rescue Indian democracy from fascism. I think the last time I accomplished a feat of this magnitude was in 1987, when I hit four consecutive boundaries off the last four balls of the last over to take my school to victory against Donnie Brasco Senior Secondary School, the then under-14 defending champions of West Mambalam.

Unfortunately, my joy was short-lived. The wife picked up the book and discovered that the bookmark was on the opening page of Chapter 1. “How do you claim to have read seven pages?” she demanded.

Well, this is what sets apart a true bibliophile like me from the millions of pretenders. It all comes down to how you count the pages. I am old school. I adopt the time-honoured practice followed by every publisher when they declare the number of pages in a new title: I count from the copyright page. So yes, when I said I read seven pages, I may have forgotten to mention that this included the copyright page, the title page, the author bio-page (he divides his time between New Jersey and Old Pyjama), the dedication page, two pages of ‘Contents’, and one blank page. I had just made it to the first full page of closely printed text when I got an urgent ping on my phone, and the rest, as they say, is Netflix.

Nonetheless, if there is one thing I’ve learnt from our government, it is that you should never play down your achievements, even if they don’t exist. So, while it may be true that I haven’t finished a book in a long time, it must also be acknowledged that advancing seven pages deep into unknown bookish territory is no mean achievement in this day and age.

People who grew up in the pre-smartphone era would remember how easy they had it. All you had to do was curl up in bed with a book and keep turning the pages until you reached the last page. You didn’t have to contend with a passive-aggressive gadget suffering from an attention-seeking disorder, as we all do now. I remember, as a teenager, having The Brothers Karamazov for breakfast, War and Peace for lunch, and Vanity Fair for dinner. Each of them is more than​​ 1,000 pages long. And I finished them all in 24 hours flat. That’s the kind of concentration I had. But today, all it takes is a momentary remembrance of pings past, and I drop the dead tree text for the digital device.

There was a time when I would never venture out without a book. What if I have to wait? Of course, I was the one who was always late. I think the last (and first) time I was expected somewhere and didn’t turn up late was the momentous occasion of my birth — I arrived three weeks early. Since then I’ve been the aam aadmi’s Godot, prone to making anyone wait anywhere any time for purely existential reasons.

Q.1.​​ Why does the author consider reading 7 pages of a book as an achievement?

  • Because in today’s time people are more busy with gadgets and are distracted due to smart phones.

  • Because he had not read 7 continuous pages since 1987

  • This was the first time he read a book

  • The book was difficult and only a few people have read it.

Q.2.What differentiates a true bibliophile from the millions of other readers?

  • A true bibliophile never counts the pages

  • A true bibliophile divides his time between New Jersey and Old Pyjama

  • A true bibliophile counts the no. of pages from the copyright page itself.

  • A true bibliophile never reads a book.

Q.3.​​ Why was the author’s wife surprised when she saw the bookmark?

  • Because the book had no bookmark in it

  • The bookmark was an e bookmark on kindle

  • Bookmarked page was numbered 24

  • Because the bookmark was on first page of chapter 1 while he claimed he had read 7 pages.

Q.4.​​ What does the author mean by “never play down your achievement”?

  • Not to be silent about your achievement even if it means nothing

  • Be like the government

  • To be contend with a passive-aggressive gadget suffering from an attention-seeking disorder

  • To making anyone wait anywhere any time for purely existential reasons.

Q.5.​​ Why did the author never venture out without a book?

  • Because on the momentous occasion of his birth he arrived three weeks early

  • He was the one who was always late

  • Because as a kid his concentration power was more

  • So that he could read it if he had to wait for someone.

 

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct option to the questions given below:

 

The man who led India's Air Force at the time of the Balakot airstrike has described it as a "paradigm shift" in IAF operations and said it was meant to tell the enemy: "Ghus kar maarenge, no matter where you are."

Exactly a year ago today, India announced it had sent warplanes into Pakistan to attack a Jaish-e-Mohammed training camp at Balakot, and killed "a very large number of JeM terrorists, trainers, senior commanders and groups of jihadis". Pakistan denied any casualties.

The operation was widely seen as India's retaliation for a suicide bombing claimed by Jaish that had killed 40 paramilitary personnel in Kashmir less than two weeks earlier.

The general elections held later that year were free of major terrorist attacks because Pakistani leaders were "scared" of a similar or bigger Indian response, former Air Force Chief BS Dhanoa told ANI on Wednesday.

The Balakot airstrike was followed by a dogfight the following day between Indian and Pakistani warplanes, in which an Indian fighter pilot -- Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman -- was captured. He was later released.

The IAF said Abhinandan Varthaman took down a Pakistani F-16 before going down, but Islamabad denies having used the US-made fighters in the first place.

The ex-Air chief said Pakistan did not believe India would strike inside its territory (it was the first time in decades that fighter jets had crossed the Line of Control).

A year later, he said, the force looks back at the Balakot operation "with satisfaction".

 

Q6.​​ ​​ Give a suitable title to the passage:

(a) Balakot Air Strike

(b) India Strikes Pak Air

(c) Balakot Air Operation- A Look Back

(d) One year of Balakot

 

Q7. Balakot airstrike has been described as a "paradigm shift" in IAF operations. The phrase "paradigm shift" refers to

(a) breaking the pattern

(b) change in model

(c) Only (a)

(d) Both (a) & (b)

 

Q8. The operation was widely seen as India's retaliation for a suicide bombing claimed by Jaish. What is the correct synonym of retaliation amongst the following options?

(a) Vengeance

(b)​​ Reprisal

(c)​​ Revenge

(d) All of the above

 

Q9. ​​​​ According to the passage, ‘suicide bombing’ refers to:

(a) suicide by bomb blast

(b)​​ mass murder by suicide squad

(c)​​ no relevance in the passage

(d) None of the above

 

Q10. The motto "Ghus kar maarenge, no matter where you are." Used in the Balakot Air Operation was the result of

(a) a suicide bombing claimed by Jaish 

(b) killing of 40 Paramilitary personnel​​ 

(c) the terror attack was carried on less than two weeks ago

(d) all of the above

 

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Direction: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.​​ 

Number of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance test from various cities.

 

Q.1.​​ What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from Mumbai and Agra in the year 2010?​​ 

  • 11 : 12​​ 

  • 28 : 33​​ 

  • 12 : 11​​ 

  • 11 : 13

Q.2.​​ What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from all the cities together in the year 2010?​​ 

  • 2800000​​ 

  • 2950000​​ 

  • 2755000​​ 

  • 2795000​​ 

Q.3.​​ The number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from Delhi in the year 2011 is what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from Bhopal in the same year?​​ 

  • 75.34%​​ 

  • 112.53%​​ 

  • 124.22%​​ 

  • 130.43%​​ 

Q.4.​​ What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from cities Mumbai, Delhi and Bhopal together in the year 2010 to the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from cities Agra, Hyderabad and Patna together in the same year?​​ 

  • 18 : 17​​ 

  • 13 : 14​​ 

  • 86 : 91​​ 

  • 14 : 13​​ 

Q.5.The number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from city Hyderabad in the year 2011 is what per cent of the total number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from all the cities together in the same year?​​ 

  • 17.05%​​ 

  • 16.15%​​ 

  • 12.31%​​ 

  • 14.49%​​ 

Direction: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.​​ 

The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of books of different types (A, B, C, D and E) sold by a book shop in the year 2015.​​ 

Note :​​ The difference between the types A books sold and type E books sold by the shop in year 2015 = 84 Percentage sale of books of different types by a shop in year 2015

Q.6. ​​​​ Find the ratio of the number of type B books sold to the type C books sold in a year by the shop.​​ 

  • 3 : 4​​ 

  • 4 : 5​​ 

  • 5 : 6​​ 

  • 7 : 5​​ 

Q.7.​​ Find the average number of type D books sold in each month by the shop.​​ 

  • 98​​ 

  • 95​​ 

  • 96​​ 

  • 102 ​​ 

Q.8.​​ The number of type B books sold in 2016 was 15% less than that of previous year. Find the number of type B books sold in 2016 by the shop.​​ 

  • 714​​ 

  • 708​​ 

  • 724​​ 

  • 728​​ 

Q.9.​​ The number of type A books sold in 2015 is what percent less than the number of type B sold in 2015?​​ 

  • 33.33%​​ 

  • 20%​​ 

  • 25%​​ 

  • 40%​​ 

Q.10.​​ Find the average number of books sold of each type in the year 2015.​​ 

  • 840​​ 

  • 720​​ 

  • 750​​ 

  • 860

 

LOGIC

 

Directions for questions 46 to 50: In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resulting number of each row must be derived based on the algorithms given below. For the purpose of processing the algorithms, move from left to right in a row.​​ 

Algorithms:

(a)​​ If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.

(b)​​ If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.

(c)​​ If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.

(d)​​ If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.

(e)​​ If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.

 

Q.1.​​ 

I.​​ 17 6 27

II.​​ T 7 21

If ‘T’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?

  • 58

  • 66

  • 27

  • None of the above

Q.2.​​ 

I.​​ 14 36 17

II.​​ 20 X 12

If ‘X’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?

  • 69

  • 85

  • 101

  • None of the above

Q.3.​​ 

I.​​ 85 17 33

II.​​ 16 17 R

If ‘R’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the sum of the resultants of first and second row?

  • 41

  • -3

  • 3

  • 33

Q.4.​​ 

I.​​ 22 13 5

II.​​ U 2 25

If ‘U’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the difference between the resultants of the second and first row?

  • 23

  • 28

  • 22

  • 29

Q.5.​​ 

I.​​ 10 49 15

II.​​ G 7 10

If ‘G’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?

  • 51

  • 55

  • 59

  • None of the above

Direction for questions 51 to 55:​​ In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.

Algorithms:

(a)​​ If an even number is followed by another even number they are to be added.

(b)​​ If an even number is followed by a prime number, they are to be multiplied

(c)​​ If an odd number is followed by an even number, the even number is to be subtracted from the odd number

(d)​​ If an odd number is followed by another odd number the first number is to be added to the square of the second number

(e)​​ If an even number is followed by a composite odd number, the even number is to be divided by the odd number.

Q.6.

I.​​ 42 21 7

II.​​ 15 9 24

What is the half of the sum of the resultants of the two rows?

  • 67

  • 35

  • 47

  • None of the Above

Q.7.

I.​​ 35 14 10

II.​​ 20 16 9

What is the product of the resultants of the two rows?

  • 75

  • 48

  • 45

  • None of the Above

Q.8.

I.​​ 16 7 12

II.​​ 69 14 9

What is the difference between the resultants of the second row and first row?

  • 16

  • 17

  • 12

  • None of the Above

Q.9.​​ 

I.​​ 12 13 9

II.​​ 67 44 9

What will be the outcome if the resultant of the second row is divided by the resultant of the first row?

  • 2

  • 4

  • 6

  • None of the Above

Q.10.

I.​​ 55 11 18

II.​​ 13 3 7

What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?

  • 366

  • 648

  • 264

  • None of the Above

CURRENT AFFAIRS

The --------- government has cleared the design of a glass floor suspension bridge, the first of its kind in the country, to be built across Ganga river in ------- as an alternative to the iconic LakshmanJhula which was closed last year.Prepared by the Public Works Department (PWD), the design of the bridge is the first of its kind in India as it would have a floor made of toughened transparent glass giving pedestrians a sense of walking on the surface of the river while crossing through the bridge, Additional Chief Secretary Om Prakash said on Thursday.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/after-closure-of-iconic-lakshman-jhula-first-of-its-kind-glass-floor-bridge-to-replace-it/articleshow/73987551.cms

Q.1.​​ Where is India’s 1st ever Glass floor bridge located at replacing iconic suspension bridge LakshmanJhula?

  • Uttar Pradesh

  • ​​ Madhya Pradesh

  • Himachal Pradesh

  • Uttarakhand

Q.2.​​ The LakshmanJhula suspension bridge which is to be replaced by currently made Glass floor bridge has been in service for how many years?

  • 70 years​​ 

  • 85 years

  • 100 years

  • 94 years

The much awaited railway line between Agartala to Akhaura in -------- will be completed by September 2021 and the process for acquisition of land and handing it over to the executing agency in both the countries has been completed, officials said on Thursday.

The 15.6 km-long railway link connects -------- in --------- to Nischintapur in India (10.6 km) and from Nischintapur to Agartala railway station (5.46 Kms).

The DoNER ministry is bearing the cost for laying the track on the 5.46 km Indian side and the cost of laying the 10.6 km-long track on the ------- side is being borne by the ministry of external affairs, the officials said.

Q.3.​​ The railway line under construction between Agartala to Akhaura will be completed by September 2021. It is the Railway line between India and which country?

  • Bhutan

  • China

  • Pakistan

  • Bangladesh

Q.4.​​ The 15.6 km-long railway link connects [X] in Bangladesh to Nischintapur in India. Name X.

  • Gangasagar

  • Madrohi

  • Triloknagar

  • Fazilbaad

Director-General of UNESCO Audrey Azoulay presented the 'World Heritage City' certificate to the --------- on February 05, 2020. The status of World Heritage City boosts domestic and international tourism, strengthens the local economy and also provides employment to the people. The income of the handicrafts and handloom industry also gets the benefits of tourism. The government of India sent a proposal in August 2018 to declare Pink City as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. There are 37 World Heritage Sites in Rajasthan. These include Chittorgarh Fort, Kumbhalgarh, Jaisalmer, Ranthambore, and Gagron Fort among others.​​ 

https://www.jagranjosh.com/current-affairs/jaipur-receives-unesco-world-heritage-city-certificate-1580964894-1

Q.5.​​ Which Indian city receives the UNESCO world heritage city certificate during the visit of Directorate General of UNESCO’s visit to India?

  • Kerala

  • Sikkim

  • Jaipur

  • Ahmedabad

Q.6.​​ Who heads the Indian National Commission for Co-operation with UNESCO and met the DG UNESCO in New Delhi​​ ?

  • Narendra Modi

  • Rajnath Singh

  • Nitin JairamGadkari

  • Ramesh PokhriyalNishank

Q.7.​​ How many World Heritage City are there in India?

  • 35

  • 36

  • 37

  • 38

Q.8.​​ Which city has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World Heritage City by UNESCO?

  • Kerala

  • ​​ Sikkim

  • Jaipur

  • Ahmedabad

Q.9.​​ Which State has the Maximum Number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites?

  • Gujarat

  • Maharasthra

  • Sikkim

  • Madhya Pradesh

------- on Thursday appointed career diplomat Philip Barton as its High Commissioner to India to succeed Dominic Asquith.Barton will take up his appointment during Spring 2020, a statement from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office (FCO) said.

Barton was the Director General, Consular and Security at the Foreign and Commonwealth Office from April 2017 until January 2020. Barton joined the FCO in 1986 and is a career diplomat.He has been posted overseas in Caracas, New Delhi, Gibraltar as Deputy Governor and Washington as Deputy Ambassador. He was ​​ High Commissioner to Pakistan from 2014 to 2016. Most recently, Philip has been Acting Chairman of the Joint Intelligence Committee.

https://www.news18.com/news/india/philip-barton-appointed-britains-new-high-commissioner-to-india-2490455.html

Q.10.​​ Which nation has appointed Philip Barton as new High commissioner to India​​ ?

  • Britain

  • Sweden

  • Norway

  • Brazil

DEDUCTIVE ​​ REASONING

Excerpts from the Chacha Nehru University Act, 1969

The Ordinances may provide, for the admission of students, the courses of study and the fees therefor, the qualifications pertaining to degrees, diplomas, certificates and other academic distinctions, the conditions for the grant of Fellowships, Awards and the like.

The Ordinances shall be made by the Vice-Chancellor with the previous approval of the Central Government.

Constitution of Indiana

Article 37​​ (Part IV): The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforced by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

Article 45(Part IV):The State shall endeavour to provide for economical higher education for all its citizens.

Q.1.​​ Chacha Nehru University (CNU) is an internationally acclaimed university of Indiana, established under Chacha Nehru University Act, 1969 (“the Act”). It offers higher education to the bright students at a nominal fees. CNU had not raised its fees for 20 years. However, the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of Indiana recently released a notification dated 21st​​ December, 2019, which increased the fees for the upcoming batches by nearly 200%, including an increase in the Hostel fee from 500 rupees to 5000 rupees per annum. Agitated by the fee hike, the students moved to the court. Is the fee hike valid?

  • Yes, the government is empowered for the same under the Act

  • No, the proper procedure has not been followed

  • No, the state has failed to perform its duty under Article 45

  • Part IV cannot be enforced by the court

Q.2.​​ The Vice Chancellor (VC) subsequently takes cognizance of the matter and issues an ordinance bringing the fee hike down to only 5 percent increase, against the government’s will. Decide. (to be read with Question 1)

  • The VC has rightly followed the principles of the Constitution

  • The VC has failed to abide by the provisions of the Act

  • The notification of the Government should prevail

  • The VC should be removed

Q.3.​​ The VC of CNU has brought in a scheme with the previous approval of the Central Government that the university will award fellowship in lieu of a donation of 5, 00,000 rupees. The same has been challenged before the court under the abovementioned provisions.​​ Decide.

  • provision is not valid because it is immoral

  • provision is not valid because Ministry of Human Resource Development did not give permission

  • provision is valid because VC has acted within his powers

  • provision is valid because it will reduce burden on the students

Q.4.​​ Article 21A under part III of the constitution provides for compulsory and free primary education for children from 6 to 14 years. Can the same be enforced through courts?

  • Yes, It is a fundamental right

  • No, It is a directive principle of state policy

  • Yes, it is for the benefit of the children

  • Yes, only part IV is not enforceable but part III is.

Q.5.​​ Which of the following is correct?

  • Central government has a key role in decisions related to CNU

  • Part IV of the Constitution of Indiana is non-binding on the government

  • Both a and b

  • Neither a nor b

The constitutional text also creates certain express defenses to crimes. Consider the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause. The first half bars a legislature from enacting a law that names and convicts someone of a crime without a trial.The second half forbids a legislature from retroactively applying a statute defining a new crime or enhancing the penalty for an old one. The First Amendment also takes away from Congress the authority to make any law trespassing on certain civil liberties, which naturally includes any law making it a crime to engage in the conduct that the provision safeguards. Defendants in both federal and state criminal cases may defend against a charged federal offense on the ground that the statute violates the First Amendment. The clauses have this in common: they all address aspects of substantive criminal law. One defines a crime in the text of the Constitution. Some describe the type of conduct that the government should outlaw. Others place certain primary conduct entirely out of bounds. The Due Process Clause does none of those things. Insteadit ensures that no one can be criminally punished unless he has committed a criminal offense defined by a different positive law and then only in compliance with whatever procedural restraints the law elsewhere requires.

The phrase “due process of law” comes from a fourteenth century act of Parliament, stating that “no Man of what Estate or Condition that he be, shall be put out of Land or Tenement, nor taken, nor imprisoned, nor disinherited, nor put to Death, without being brought in Answer by due Process of the Law. That provision, in turn, traces its lineage to Chapter 39 of Magna Carta of 1215, a document that rivals our own Constitution in the protections it affords against arbitrary government conduct. Chapter 39 provided that no free man is to be taken or imprisoned or disseised or outlawed or exiled or in any way ruined, nor will we go or send against him, except by the lawful judgement of his peers or by the law of the land.

[https://www.harvard-jlpp.com/wp-content/uploads/sites/21/2020/01/Larkin-Canaparo-FINAL.pdf]

Q.6.​​ The state of Zambar is highly developed country in terms of technology. It has become the first country in world whose complete demographic area comes under CCTV surveillance since January 2019. In December 2019, the Zambarian parliament enacted a law which had provisions that if any person is caught under the camera committing a crime, he will be assumed guilty during the trial and he will have the burden to prove that he has not committed the crime. Decide on the basis of the principles discussed on the above paragraph:

  • The law deprives the accused of a trial

  • The law does not deprive the accused of a trial

  • The motive behind enacting the law is good

  • The conduct of the government is arbitrary

Q.7.​​ (Based on question 1) In January 2020, The parliament of Zambar brought an amendment for extending the new law to the acts committed after March 2019 and punish convicts for the same. The amendment is:

  • Against chapter 39 of Magna Carta

  • Against second half of the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause

  • Against first half of the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause

  • None of the above

Q.8.​​ In January 2020, Zambar successfully developed a technology “ChalJhootha” which can identify if a person is speaking a lie or not with 100% accuracy. If the government plans to use the same for convicting a person found lying by ChalJhootha, how would the author response to it

  • He will find it as conviction of the accused without a trial.

  • He will allege retroactive application of a statute defining a new crime or enhancing the penalty for an old one.

  • Both a and b

  • None of the above

Q.9.​​ If “ChalJhootha” is used to determine veracity of the statements of the accused for his past acts and reducing his punishment if he is found to tell the truth, the author will

  • Not find it problematic

  • Find it problematic against the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause

  • Find it problematic for not following due process

  • Find it problematic with Chapter 39 of Magna Carta of 1215

Q.10.​​ Which of the following is correct in view of the above passage:

  • no one should be criminally punished except for a proven crime under the positive law

  • no one should be arrested until required as a preventive measure for a grave crime

  • both a and b

  • neither a nor b

ANSWER KEY

ENGLISH

  •  

A

 

  •  

C

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

A

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

C

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

B

 

  •  

D

 

 

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUE

  •  

B

Sol-Required ratio = 28 : 33​​ 

Hence, option (B) is correct.

 

  •  

B

Sol-Required average number of candidates​​ 

= (28 + 28 + 30 + 33 + 23 + 35)/6 lakh ​​ 

​​ 177/6 lakh = 29.5 lakh = 2950000 ​​ 

Hence, option (B) is correct.

  •  

D

Sol- Required percentage = 30/23 × 100 = 130 ​​ 

Hence, option (D) is correct

  •  

C

Sol-Required ratio = (28 + 28 + 30) : (33 +23 + 35) = 86 : 91​​ 

Hence, option (C) is correct

  •  

A

Sol- Total number of candidates appearing for the test from all the cities in 2011.

​​ ​​ (33 + 30 + 23 + 28 + 30 + 32) lakh = 176​​ lakh​​ 

Number of candidates appearing in the test from city Hyderabad in 2011 = 30 lakh​​ 

Reqd. % = 30/176 × 100 = 17.05% ​​ 

Hence, option (A) is correct.

  •  

C

Sol- Let the total books sold in a year be ‘x’​​ 

So, 0.15x – 0.13x = 84, x = 4200

Types of Book

No. o books sold in a year

A

15% of 4200 = 630

B

20% of 4200 = 840

C

24% of 4200 = 1008

D

28% of 4200 = 1176

E

13% of 4200 = 546

​​ 

So, required ratio = 840 : 1008 = 5 : 6​​ 

Hence, option C is correct.

 

  •  

A

Sol- Let the total books sold in a year be ‘x’​​ 

So, 0.15x – 0.13x = 84,​​ 

x = 4200

Types of Book

No. o books sold in a year

A

15% of 4200 = 630

B

20% of 4200 = 840

C

24% of 4200 = 1008

D

28% of 4200 = 1176

E

13% of 4200 = 546

​​ So, reqd. average = 1176/12 = 98 ​​ 

Hence, option A is correct.

  •  

A

Sol- Let the total books sold in a year be ‘x’​​ 

So, 0.15x – 0.13x = 84,​​ 

x = 4200

Types of Book

No. o books sold in a year

A

15% of​​ 4200 = 630

B

20% of 4200 = 840

C

24% of 4200 = 1008

D

28% of 4200 = 1176

E

13% of 4200 = 546

So, required number of type B books sold in 2016 by the shop = 85% of 840 = 714​​ 

Hence, option A is correct.

  •  

C

Sol- Let the total books sold in a year be ‘x’​​ 

So, 0.15x – 0.13x = 84,​​ 

x = 4200

Types of Book

No. o books sold in a year

A

15% of 4200 = 630

B

20% of 4200 = 840

C

24%​​ of 4200 = 1008

D

28% of 4200 = 1176

E

13% of 4200 = 546

So, reqd. percentage = 840 – 630 × 100/840 = 25% ​​ 

Hence, option C is correct.

  •  

A

Sol- Let the total books sold in a year be ‘x’​​ 

So, 0.15x – 0.13x = 84,​​ 

x = 4200

Types of Book

No. o books sold in a year

A

15% of 4200 = 630

B

20% of 4200 = 840

C

24% of 4200 = 1008

D

28% of 4200​​ = 1176

E

13% of 4200 = 546

So, reqd. average = 4200/5 = 840​​ 

Hence, option A is correct

 

LOGIC

  •  

B

Explanation:

17 – 6 = 11 (algorithm e) 11 + 27= 38 (algorithm a) a = 38

38 + 7 = 45 (algorithm b) 45 + 21 = 66 (algorithm a)

  •  

D

Explanation:

36 – 14 = 22 (algorithm c) 22 + 17 = 39 (algorithm b) Q = 39

20 + 39 = 59 (algorithm b) 59 – 12 = 47 (algorithm e)

  •  

D

Explanation:

85 / 17 = 5 (algorithm d) 5 + 33 = 38 (algorithm a) R = 38

16 + 17 = 33 (algorithm b) 33 – 38 = -5 (algorithm e); Sum of the resultants of first and second row = 38 – 5 =33

  •  

A

Explanation:

22 + 13 = 35 (algorithm b) 35 / 5 = 7 (algorithm d) R = 7

7 – 2 = 5 (algorithm e) 5 + 25 = 30 (algorithm a) Difference between second and first row resultants = 30 – 7=23

  •  

A

Explanation:

49 – 10 = 39 (algorithm c) 39 + 15 = 54 (algorithm a) d = 54

54 + 7 = 61 (algorithm b) 61 – 10 = 51 (algorithm e)

  •  

A

Explanation:

42 / 21 = 2 (algorithm e) 2 * 7 = 14 (algorithm c) R1 = 14

15 + (9) ² = 96 (algorithm d) 96 + 24 = 120 (algorithm a) R2 = 120

(14 + 120) / 2 = 67

  •  

D

Explanation:

35 – 14 = 21 (algorithm c) 21 – 10 = 11 (algorithm c) R1 = 11

20 + 16 = 36 (algorithm a) 36 / 9 = 4 (algorithm e) R2 = 4

= 11 * 4 = 44

  •  

C

Explanation:

16 * 7 = 112 (algorithm b) 112 + 12 = 124 (algorithm a) R1 = 124

69 – 14 = 55 (algorithm c) 55 + (9) ² = 136 (algorithm d) R2 = 136

136 – 124 = 12

  •  

D

Explanation:

12 * 13 = 156 (algorithm b) 156 / 9 = 52/3 (algorithm e) R1 = 52/3

67 – 44 = 23 (algorithm c) 23 + 81 = 104 (algorithm d) R2 = 104

R2/R1 = (104/52) * 3 = 6

  •  

D

Explanation:

55 + 121 = 176 (algorithm d) 176 + 18 = 194 (algorithm a) R1 = 194

13 + 9 = 22 (algorithm d) 22 * 7 = 154 (algorithm b) R2 = 154

194 + 154 = 348

​​ CURRENT AFFAIRS

  •  

D

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

A

 

  •  

C

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

D

 

  •  

B

 

  •  

A

 

 

LEGAL

  •  

B

The fee hike can be effected through Ordinances, made by the Vice-Chancellor with the previous approval of the Central Government. It cannot be done through notification, hence not (a). Although the state has failed to perform its duty, it cannot be enforced by the court as provided by Article 37, hence not (c). Option (d) does not answer the question asked

  •  

B

Prior approval of the government is mandatory therefore not (a). the governments notification was already not procedurally correct, therefore not (c). (d) is irrelevant

  •  

C

The VC is empowered to do so under CNU Act. Morality and the Ministry of Human Resource Development have got nothing to do with the answer. D is irrelevant

  •  

D

Options a and b are outside the scope of this problem. C is not relevant. Since article 21A is in part III, ENFORECABLE

  •  

C

The decision of the government is mandatory in important matters. Part IV also is non enforceable in courts against the government

  •  

B

The clearly does not deprive the accused of a trial. The first paragraph mentions “The first half bars a legislature from enacting a law that names and convicts someone of a crime without a trial.” Options (c) and (d) are not relevant for the question

  •  

C

“The second half forbids a legislature from retroactively applying a statute defining a new crime or enhancing the penalty for an old one”]

  •  

A

This will invoke the first half of the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause

  •  

A

This is with “enhancing the penalty” for an old crimes. Therefore reducing penalty will not be a matter of concern

  •  

A

Arrest as a preventive measure has not been talked about. Further, “no one can be criminally punished unless he has committed a criminal offense defined by a different positive law”

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